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Speaking of Christ: 10 True and False Propositions from Aquinas

By on April 14, 2012 in Christology, Doctrine, Theology with 30 Comments
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Do you know how to speak about Christ? How to use the exact words so as to avoid anything that could logically lead to — heresy? It used to scare me so much I hesitated to use fuller words, but St. Thomas lays it out for us. Here’s a brief explanation, and a list for you to use when you need a quick reference.

When speaking of the Incarnation theologians use the term “hypostatic union” to refer to the union of a human nature and the Divine Nature in the hypostasis, or personality, of the Second Person of the Blessed Trinity, the Son of God.

It helps to understand the difference between nature and person.

What was Christ? He was true man and true God.

Who was Christ? He was the Son of God.

The Son of God is also referred to as the Word of God, or the Logos of the Father. The Incarnation is God Himself as man, a human nature assumed to the Divine Nature in the soul of Christ. St. Augustine likened the Incarnation to a cosmic soul which takes material into the form of a human being united with Himself.

In the Third Part of the Summa Theologica, Question 16 (also Question 35, Article 2) the discussion of the consequences of this union and how to speak of them – the communication of idioms which belong to Christ and His becoming – is addressed. The two natures in Christ are distinct, but not separate, and so it is necessary to articulate the properties resulting from the hypostatic union in precise terminology; that is, the properties of the Divine nature that can be attributed to the man must be articulated, and the properties of the human nature that can be attributed to God must be articulated.

Although Christ is true man and true God, this does not mean that there are two persons, but that there are two nativities, the only begotten Son of God who exists for all eternity and Christ conceived of the Virgin Mary, as Man, in time, a human nature assumed to the Divine Nature in the one person of the Son of God.

All of this is in accordance with the infallible pronouncement of the Council of Chalcedon, the Fourth Ecumenical Council, in 451, whose principle purpose was to assert orthodox Catholic doctrine against heresies concerning the person of Christ. “We all with one accord teach…one identical Son, our Lord Jesus Christ…perfect both in His divinity and His humanity, truly God and truly man composed of body and rational soul…in His divinity He was begotten of the Father before time, and in His humanity He was begotten in the last age of Mary the Virgin, the Mother of God, for us and for salvation.”

Here’s a brief list for quick reference. Tip: Don’t open them all at once.

[tabs slidertype="top tabs"] [tabcontainer] [tabtext] True Propositions[/tabtext] [tabtext]False Propositions[/tabtext] [/tabcontainer] [tabcontent] [tab]

10 True Propositions

[learn_more caption="1. God is Man."]St. Thomas asserts that by reason of the hypostatic union, this must be literally held true, but only when speaking of Christ. Father Reginald Garrigou-Lagrange OP offers in his book, Christ the Savior, a general rule for speaking of Christ as God and Christ as man. A distinction must be made between concrete (in this context “concrete” means unified) terms which signify the nature in the individual as one object, such as God and man, and abstract terms which signify the general nature separated from the individual, such as the Godhead and humanity. “Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men, and in habit found as a man.” Philippians 2:6-7[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="2. Man is God."]St. Thomas asserts that by reason of the hypostatic union, this must be literally held true, but only when speaking of Christ. Father Reginald Garrigou-Lagrange OP offers in his book, Christ the Savior, a general rule for speaking of Christ as God and Christ as man. A distinction must be made between concrete (in this context “concrete” means unified) terms which signify the nature in the individual as one object, such as God and man, and abstract terms which signify the general nature separated from the individual, such as the Godhead and humanity. “Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men, and in habit found as a man.” Philippians 2:6-7[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="3. God was made Man."]“And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us.” It follows from the rule of Fr. Langrange (see God is Man) and from the proposition that there are two nativities in Christ, that “God was made man.” For something to be said to “be made” what it becomes is what it was meant to be, predicated of it for the first time. This is strictly true from the time of Christ assuming human nature, but it doesn’t mean that God was created. Rather, it refers to the assumption of a human nature to the eternal God but does not mean that God was changed, only that human nature began to subsist in a Divine Person.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="4. Christ is a Divine Person."]It is important to note that Jesus Christ was not a human person. He was both God and man, a perfect human nature united to the perfect Divine Nature, but since Mary was the Mother of God, she was the Mother of a Divine Person born of her. Thus although Christ was a human being, He was not a human person. He is a Divine Person.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="5. Christ was human."]It is important to note that Jesus Christ was not a human person. He was both God and man, a perfect human nature united to the perfect Divine Nature, but since Mary was the Mother of God, she was the Mother of a Divine Person born of her. Thus although Christ was human, He was not a human person. He is a Divine Person. UPDATE: Please see the explanation from Mary An Parks and Father OP in the comments below too.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="6. God was humanized."]It is not correct to say that man was made God because the human nature was not deified; it was assumed. To say that it was deified would logically require the human being to exist before Christ, and that is impossible. It is correct to say that “God was humanized”, but not correct to say that “man began to be God.”[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="7. Christ, as Man, was a creature."]Even though the Holy Doctors say that Christ was a creature, St. Thomas suggests that a qualifying term be added for clarity. “Christ as man” by reason of His human nature was a creature. Christ suffered, died and was buried, as a corporeal human being according to the nature of human beings, thus He was also created in time – as Man.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="8. Christ, as Man, suffered, died and was buried."]Even though the Holy Doctors say that Christ was a creature, St. Thomas suggests that a qualifying term be added for clarity. “Christ as man” by reason of His human nature was a creature. Christ suffered, died and was buried, as a corporeal human being according to the nature of human beings, thus He was also created in time – as Man.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="9. Christ, as Man, was created in time."]Even though the Holy Doctors say that Christ was a creature, St. Thomas suggests that a qualifying term be added for clarity. “Christ as man” by reason of His human nature was a creature. Christ suffered, died and was buried, as a corporeal human being according to the nature of human beings, thus He was also created in time – as Man.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="10. Christ began to be Man."]It is written in scripture, “Jesus Christ yesterday and today: and the same for ever.” It is correct to say that “Christ began to be Man” but not that “The Man Christ began to be.”[/learn_more]

 

 

 

 

[/tab] [tab]

10 False Propositions

[learn_more caption="1. God is humanity."]It is true to say that “God is man” or “man is God” but it is false to intermingle the concrete and the abstract and say that “God is humanity” or “the Godhead is man.” Any true articulation must be in reference to the concrete or united individual object, God or man, since Christ is one individual with both a human and a Divine nature. Thus “the Godhead is humanity” is also false.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="2. The Godhead is man."]It is true to say that “God is man” or “man is God” but it is false to intermingle the concrete and the abstract and say that “God is humanity” or “the Godhead is man.” Any true articulation must be in reference to the concrete or united individual object, God or man, since Christ is one individual with both a human and a Divine nature. Thus “the Godhead is humanity” is also false.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="3. The Word of God is Man."]It is usually admitted by all Christians that “God is man” but not always in the proper articulation of the term. The Manichean heresy logically followed the statement “the Word of God is man” as if the body and soul is separate and the Son of God assumed an imaginary body. But Christ is not imaginary, He is real.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="4. Christ, Who is God and Man, is God by grace."]The Photinus heresy denied the reality on the part of God in Christ saying that “Christ, Who is God and man, is God not naturally, but by participation, i.e. by grace.” [/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="5. Christ is God and Man by indwelling."]The Nestorian heresy did hold that Christ is really God and man, but only by reason of an indwelling of God in the form of a man, which logically follows to a denial of the union of the Divine nature and an assumed human nature and a conclusion that there were two persons in Christ.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="6. The Godhead suffered."]Another rule applies in the communication of idioms, “what belongs to one cannot be said of another, unless they are both the same.” For this reason, although what belongs to human nature can be predicated of God in Christ, it cannot be predicated to the Divine Nature, or the Godhead. The properties of human nature cannot be ascribed to the Divine Nature by reason of the Incarnation, according to the rule described by Lagrange. The Divine Nature and human nature in general are not the same, the hypostatic union is proper only to the one Person of the Word of God, to Christ, and Incarnation implies union with flesh not a property of the flesh. It cannot be said that the Godhead suffered, for instance, or that Christ’s human nature was omnipotent.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="7. Christ’s human nature was omnipotent."]Another rule applies in the communication of idioms, “what belongs to one cannot be said of another, unless they are both the same.” For this reason, although what belongs to human nature can be predicated of God in Christ, it cannot be predicated to the Divine Nature, or the Godhead. The properties of human nature cannot be ascribed to the Divine Nature by reason of the Incarnation, according to the rule described by Lagrange. The Divine Nature and human nature in general are not the same, the hypostatic union is proper only to the one Person of the Word of God, to Christ, and Incarnation implies union with flesh not a property of the flesh. It cannot be said that the Godhead suffered, for instance, or that Christ’s human nature was omnipotent.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="8. Man was made God."]It is not correct to say that man was made God because the human nature was not deified; it was assumed. To say that it was deified would logically require the human being to exist before Christ, and that is impossible. It is correct to say that “God was humanized”, but not correct to say that “man began to be God.”[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="9. Christ as Man is Creator."]It is true to say “Christ as Man is creature” but false to say that “Christ as Man is Creator.[/learn_more]
[learn_more caption="10. Christ as Man is God."]Whatever belongs to Christ as Man belongs to every man by reason of His human nature, and to say “Christ as Man is God” would logically mean that every man is God, which is obviously false. It is truer to say “Christ as the Man, is God.”[/learn_more]

 

 

 

 

 

 

[/tab] [/tabcontent] [/tabs]

 

[learn_more caption="Sources"]

[/learn_more]

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  • http://newtheologicalmovement.blogspot.com Father Ryan Erlenbush

    Stacy, This has long been one of my favorite series of questions in the Summa! Thanks for bringing it to our attention!

    Another phrase that people often get wrong is this: “Mary is Mother of Divinity” … it is a common phrase, and I’ve seen it written by many people (most recently, I read it in a poem by Sr. Catherine Doherty) — but it is heresy.
    Mary is the Mother of God, but not Mother of Divinity … just as we say God became Man, but not Divinity (or “Godhead”) became Man.
    Summa Theologica III, q.35, a.4, ad 2.

  • http://newtheologicalmovement.blogspot.com Father Ryan Erlenbush

    Stacy, just one note … I’m not sure we want to say “Christ as man is not an eternal person but a temporal person” … this makes it sound like there is a temporal person, and of course there are not two persons (one temporal and another eternal) — as you yourself rightly say.

    So, it is perhaps better not to say anything about “Christ as man” being any kind of a person, but instead to say “The Humanity of Christ is in an eternal person” and also that “Christ is an eternal person by virtue of his divinity only”.
    If we were to say anything at all about what type of person Christ is as man … we would have to say “Christ as man is an eternal person”, and then qualify this by saying that his humanity is actualized in an eternal person.

    At least, that is how I read ST III, q.16, a.12 (especially, ad 1).
    Peace! +

  • http://www.acceptingabundance.com Stacy Trasancos

    Father Erlenbush,

    I hope you know how much I appreciate your guidance! I am loving learning these things, but I don’t want to confuse any of St. Thomas’ teaching. I want to learn it the way he meant it. Thank you!

    So this:

    “Christ as Man is not an eternal person but a temporal person, but Christ as God is eternal.”

    …could lead someone to confusion that Christ is a human person, which is heresy. OK, yes that makes sense.

    I’ll change it to…

    “Although Christ is true man and true God, this does not mean that there are two persons, but that there are two nativities…”

    Thank you so much!

  • Jeff McLeod

    You are both quite right. St. Thomas specifically uses the formula that Christ is a divine Person who assumed a human nature.

    One Person with 2 natures.

    Also, I agree that God did not deify human nature, however I would be careful to note that the Church Fathers taught, and the catechism affirms (#460) that by the incarnation, individual men may become deified, meaning we may become an adopted son of God by Grace. But God in no way deified human nature.

  • http://newtheologicalmovement.blogspot.com Father Ryan Erlenbush

    Stacy, Looks good! Thank YOU for posting these interesting and helpful summaries of St. Thomas’ Christological doctrine! :-)

  • SteveP

    Thank you, Stacy. I’ve waded into the Latin and am currently struggling with III q. 16 a. 9

  • Jeff McLeod

    Oh SteveP, bless you.

    I bet you’re stuck on the word suppositum.

    btw, if not, you’re way too smart :)

  • Jeff McLeod

    The difficulty of II q. 16 a.9 (especially in the Latin!) is to show how Christ, if he was indeed a concrete, particular human person, is not created like the rest of us.

    We know that Christ is a Person in the Holy Trinity.

    We would think it would work to say he was also a human person but the Church Fathers are careful not to say that. Stacy was careful to point this out too. It is actually heresy to say that Christ was a human person.

    The Latin word suppositum means a particular instance of a species, but the nuance of the meaning, as far as I can tell, is that it stops short of saying a human instance. It could also stand for an instance of a crow or a rock. It emphasizes the something as a “real thing” but not a real thing of a given kind. So I take this term as calling attention to the reality of Christ’s being-here-on-earth, while at the same time preserving the truth that his personhood is divine, not human. But his being-really-here is surely real, as sure as the bottle of water on my desk. It was no illusion.

    The Catholic faith thus affirms that in Christ there is one divine Person, one hypostasis, and one suppositum (as opposed to one Human person).

    See how nicely this works out? Jesus walked the earth at a particular place and time (sorry Manicheans), but he walked the earth not as a created human “person” (sorry Arians), but as an eternal suppositum, which does not contradict his being a concrete, particular man.

    I defer to Father Erlenbush and to the Doctors of the Church for the final word. But this is my understanding.

  • http://newtheologicalmovement.blogspot.com Father Ryan Erlenbush

    Jeff, looks like all good points to me.

    Following on what you have already said very well: I would also add that, from this fact (that Christ is one Person) it also follows that there is one “personality” or “ego” in Christ.
    There is not a human “I” and a divine “I”, but only one “I” which is the “I” of the only begotten Son.

    Thus also there is only one “He” and one “His” … so that we say “HE” is both God and Man, rather than “This ‘He’” is God and “That ‘He’” is Man.
    Further, we speak of “His” human nature, meaning the nature of the Son of God.

    Whatever anyone says about the psychology of Christ, if they start speaking of two “I’s” or “egos” or “personalities” in Christ, they are profoundly confused!

  • Jeff McLeod

    Thank you Fr. Erlenbush!

    Your comments are immensely practical for apologetics. Someone once asked me about the agony in the garden, where Jesus asked the cup to be taken away from him.

    This friend wondered whether Jesus the human person was afraid to die, but as God he was courageous.

    I had to insist: No! Whatever the interpretation of his words on that night, it must not be that Jesus Christ was of two minds on his passion and death. He was obedient to the end.

    I also want to cite below the Catechism #251 so that if any readers are demoralized by the exceedingly technical complexity of this question, you can rest assured it isn’t a game or an exercise in futility. The Church adopts this technical language to deepen our understanding and to give us tools to express very difficult concepts with great precision.

    CCC 251. In order to articulate the dogma of the Trinity, the Church had to develop her own terminology with the help of certain notions of philosophical origin: “substance”, “person” or “hypostasis”, “relation” and so on. In doing this, she did not submit the faith to human wisdom, but gave a new and unprecedented meaning to these terms, which from then on would be used to signify an ineffable mystery, “infinitely beyond all that we can humanly understand”

  • http://www.acceptingabundance.com Stacy Trasancos

    I love this discussion and am learning so much. I read Aquinas and think, “Wow, he covered that from every angle. I should completely understand it.” Then I find later while thinking it over that I discover something new, or see something new as it relates to some other part of the Summa.

    Thank you sincerely! Steve, Jeff reads the Latin too. I *look* at it, but I haven’t figured out what it means yet.

    Fr. Erlenbush, I remember your post about the “I’s.” Here it is in case someone hasn’t seen it yet: http://newtheologicalmovement.blogspot.com/2011/06/are-there-three-personalities-in-god-i.html

  • http://www.apostle.com Apostle.com

    This should be read by anyone looking to become Confirmed into the Catholic Church. You have a real expertise at unique “bulletpointing” to keep the reader engaged!

  • http://www.acceptingabundance.com Stacy Trasancos

    Thank you! It helped me a lot. And you see these wonderful scholars come along and enrich what we can learn, and excellent example of how technology can unite us.

  • sean

    Can someone tell me what is the best way to define personhood?

    Thx and God bless

  • Shane Kapler

    Loving this discussion. Total agreement with all of you. So here is a thought that I have struggled to wrap my head around for several years; and you sound like the perfect group of people to help me better understand:
    The Son’s human nature began to exist at a certain point in time. His divine nature is of course eternal and unchanging. Wouldn’t that mean that the divine Son, who is unchanging, was joined to his creation from all eternity? There’s something about that statement that seems off; but I do not have the chops to parse it and come to a resolution. Help a brother out?

  • http://www.acceptingabundance.com Stacy Trasancos

    Sean,

    I think I’d like to make that into a short essay. It’s a fascinating topic.

    As I understand it now, someone can add or correct, the word “person” comes from the ancient Greek word πρόσωπον (or prosopon) which meant “face, countenance, mask, in Hellenistic Greek also dramatic part, character.” (I’m taking that from the etymology in the OED.

    The word was adopted in early Christian theology (3rd century Tertullian) to explain the three Persons of the Blessed Trinity and then to explain an individual man. St. Thomas cites Boethius from the 6th century as defining a person as “an individual substance of a rational nature.” Classical Latin used the word persōna.

    What I’d like to study and explain more (sure others have done it but I haven’t found it) is how our modern idea of what *we* are as persons came from the precise terminology adopted to explain Divine Revelation. In other words, by studying what God revealed in the mystery of the Trinity and the Incarnation, we learned about ourselves too.

    Can anyone add to that? I love this topic.

  • http://www.acceptingabundance.com Stacy Trasancos

    Shane,

    I hope Fr. Erlenbush or Jeff or Steve can answer your question. They’ve studied it a lot more than I have, and can articulate it so clearly.

    St. Augustine’s imagery helps me to conceptualize it…the Incarnation is likened to a cosmic soul which takes material into the form of a human being united with Himself.

    I just know that St. Thomas makes it clear that we should not say the human being existed before the human nature was united to the Divine Nature in the Person of the Son of God. Yes, I have a hard time understanding what happened at the first moment of conception.

    But I think (my opinion only) that this tells us also something about ourselves. *We* (you and me and anyone else) began to exist body and soul united, one did not precede the other, at conception. God gives us our soul. St. Thomas wrote about that in De Ente et Essentia (On Being and Essence) and I’ve read it a few times. He makes this point there, that God gives us our soul, and once a soul is given to a body at the first moment of conception, it is everlasting.

    Fr. Erlenbush, Jeff, Steve??? These are busy men, but maybe they can add to the discussion. You’re kind of getting the “mommy theology” side of it here since I read De Ente et Essentia during pregnancy and it gave me a lot to think about.

  • Shane Kapler

    Right Stacy, and I totally agree with everything you have said. The Son’s human nature – Body an Soul – started to exist at a certain point in time. What I am thinking about though is the Divine nature, which does not come to know, but simply KNOWS. There would not seem to be a point, from the “Divine-side,” that this union “began,” that the Divine Son started to know what it was to be a man. That’s the issue I am trying to gain greater clarity on.

  • Mary An Parks

    One mistake: Christ was not a human being. This is commonly said now, now that we use “human being” instead of the generic “man”. Political correctness has done a number on us. Christ’s being is that of God, who is Being itself. Christ was not a human person, either, has you said. He was a man, a fully human man whose personhood is that of the Son of God and whose esse is that of God. Now you might say that His “existence”, rather than his being or esse, began at a point in time, but even that existence was nnot only human, but the existence of the God-Man. And we need to be careful to realize that as the Word of Creation in whose Image all men are made, there is no addition to the Divinity when the human nature is taken up. It finds there its proper template.

  • Shane Kapler

    Mary, you are zeroing in on what I am talking about – “there is no addition to the Divinity when the human nature is taken up.” Yes. God is eternal. There is no before or after for Him, only for us who dwell in time. Given this – that there is no before or after for God, no change or becoming something that He was not – it would seem that from the Divine perspective, the Divine Son was “always” joined to a human nature. There would be no moment in eternity when the Son “took” a human nature to Himself, but only an eternal “taking.” Am I laying out the point for which I’m seeking greater clarification? Flesh out a bit more about the human nature finding its “proper template;” I’d like to hear more of your thought there. And thanks Stacy and Mary; this is a good conversation.

  • http://www.acceptingabundance.com Stacy Trasancos

    Mary Ann,

    Thank you. What you are explaining makes sense, if I understand you correctly. Are you saying that the term “human being” has come to mean “human person” as opposed to “man”, so we should not use it for the sake of clarity?

    I remember that Fr. Kenneth Baker (Fundamentals of Catholicism, Volume 2) refers to Christ as a human being on page 231 of his book. I think that’s where I first learned that use of words.

    “He is a human being like us in all things except sin, but He is not a human person. He is a Divine Person…”

    But, I also notice that St. Thomas stops short of actually calling Christ a human being in ST-III, Q. 16, Art. 8 (emphasis mine). Of course I’m not reading the Latin though:

    “…thus we say simply that Christ suffered, died and was buried: even as in corporeal and human beings…”

    I also notice that Fr. Hardon in Christology of Thomas Aquinas does not use the term “human being” and neither does Msgr. Paul Glenn in the Tour of the Summa.

    Fr. Lagrange also seems to stay away from this term, comparing Christ to human beings but not calling him one in his discussion of ST-III, Q.1, Art. 2 about the fitness of the Incarnation:

    “How much more we are confirmed in the faith, if God Himself comes to us, and speaks to us as a human being…”

    Garrigou-Lagrange OP, Reginald, Christ the Savior: A Study of the Third Part of the Summa Theologica of St. Thomas Aquinas

    And again in Q.6, Art. 3 discussion:

    “Thus the soul of Christ, even as a substance, is individually, although not specifically, nobler than the soul of any other human being…”

    And, finally, in his discussion of Q.9, Art. 2, he even seems to warn that referring to Christ as a “human being” could lead to a Nestorian-like heresy.

    “The Nestorians, who said there were two persons in Christ, considered Christ as man to have been subject to ignorance and error. The Apollinarians and Anomoeans, who maintained that the Word functions as the mind in the Savior, denied all human knowledge to Christ. Likewise the Monophysites and Monothelites, who taught that there is only one operation in Christ, denied Him human knowledge. Finally, in the sixth century, the Agnoetae, under the leadership of Themistius, deacon of Alexandria, contended that Christ, as other men, was subject to the corruption of the flesh and was, as a human being, ignorant.”

    I apologize for the long comment (I was looking stuff up). I mostly want to know if I understand you correctly, because what you said makes sense, and I want to know if it is perhaps a doctrinal clarification. I can see how it would be enough to say Christ is true God and true man, and to avoid terminology that could be confusing such as “human person” or “human being.”

    Again, thanks Mary. Nice to *meet* you in cyberspace! :-D

  • http://www.acceptingabundance.com Stacy Trasancos

    If it is helpful to anyone, the sources I mentioned in the above comment are all linked in the “Sources” section except Fr. Baker’s book, which I linked in the last comment (page 231).

  • FatherOP

    I want to affirm what Mary An Parks wrote a few posts above; namely, proposition #5 in your “true” set is actually not correct.

    Christ was a *man*, but He was not a “human being.” There is one (and only one) *being* (esse) in Christ, and that is the Divine being that He shares with the Father and the Holy Spirit. In the Incarnation that Divine being was united to a human nature, but that event did not in any way transform the *being* (esse) of Christ into something different (i.e. the Incarnation did not transform the Divine being into human being), nor did it add anything new to the being of Christ (i.e. Christ does not have two “beings” but only one; namely, His Divine being).

    For any other creature, like you or I, if we have a human nature, we are a human being. Simple as that. But that is not true of Christ, as His being (which is Divine) has existed from all eternity and, as I said above, remained unchanged post-Incarnation.

    As Mary An also pointed out, this problem of language is only one that has come about in recent years as a result of the gender-inclusive language movement which has attempted to get rid of the term “man” entirely and replace it with “human being” wherever it appears. In this particular case, that is a substitution that simply cannot be made. (Unless you want to try to argue that the phrase “human being” does not make any claims whatsoever about Christ’s *being* which, besides sounding strange, basically means that the word “being” in each of those two cases is being used absolutely equivocally–which at the very least is going to cause confusion among the people of God, and the last thing we need today is MORE confusion among Catholics!)

  • http://www.acceptingabundance.com Stacy Trasancos

    Father OP,

    Thank you so much! I get it, it makes sense.

    If you have the time, could you please check and tell me if I’m understanding correctly from what I commented just above? I want to make sure I understand so I can explain, and more importantly, reference appropriately.

    You know — I always use the term “man” or “human” when referring to humanity because it communicates the meaning so well, but I was aware that “man” could be taken as **politically incorrect** today. I still use it because it is accurate. I’m a woman, part of humanity, but still not man, but what man is born from — which is an honor because that makes me like Mary. But she was not a man. Christ was a man.

    Am I understanding correctly? Correct away. I want to understand this too.

    I will CORRECT the post ASAP. Thank you both!

  • Jeff McLeod

    Shane, what a great question. You’re saying it would seem that since Christ is the eternal LOGOS, and yet his human nature was assumed at a particular moment in time, and since we know that the eternal LOGOS is unchanging because it is one in being with God, then the mingling of Christ’s divinity together with his human nature must also in some sense be eternal. Otherwise the divine nature will have changed, which is impossible. And you believe that while this sounds sort of mystically pleasing or meaningful, that Christ would allow his divinity to be penetrated by our human nature, it sounds “off” as a matter of doctrine.

    Is that your question?

    I believe you’re right that something doesn’t quite fit. I would make two observations. First, St. Thomas, like Aristotle, had a difficulty with the “existence” of natures. Plato (their foil) said that natures were ideal entities that existed forever.

    But Aristotle and St. Thomas held rather that form as such does not exist per se outside of a particular thing here-and-now. Yet isn’t there a “human nature” in some sense that is eternal?

    St. Thomas taught that essences (which are ideas, quiddities — as Stacy reminded us last week!) — the whatness of things, do exist in eternity, but only in a special was as ideas in the mind of God. So in that very limited sense, I would say certainly, the idea of human nature was always intimately present to God the Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

    We can push this envelope a little — a brief side note — the Catechism reminds us in CCC #760 that the earliest Church Fathers maintained that the world was created for the sake of the Church. Let that sink in. Creation was for the Church. It is a plan of sheer goodness. This teaching suggests to me that we should be careful not to imagine human nature as some after thought in the mind of God, somewhere way back there behind the idea of imaginary numbers or integrals or derivatives. The universe was made for the Catholic Church. The footnotes for CCC #760 are breathtaking by the way. Some time I’ll share them in more detail, but they reveal the earliest apologists warning the Roman officials to quit badgering Christians because they literally hold the universe together. The message was, “dude, you don’t want to see what’s unleashed if you vanquish this Church”.

    To sum up point one, human nature exists for eternity as an idea in the mind of God, according to St. Thomas, so in this sense, yes it’s true that Christ is united with human nature, and indeed designed the universe for us and for our salvation.

    The second point recognizes the difficulty of there being two natures, one eternal, the other with a fixed beginning in time. The Church teaches that “the hypostatic union of Christ’ human nature with the Divine LOGOS took place at the moment of conception” in the womb of Mary, but that “the hypostatic union will never cease.” So Christ’s human nature had a determinate beginning but has no end. Here I’m quoting Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma by Ott, p. 150. Origen taught erroneously that the human soul of Christ existed for all time. But this view is rejected by the Church, as is the Gnostic view that Christ’s human nature was entered by the divine LOGOS on the day of his baptism.

    So did the union of the Divine nature with Human nature change or alter the Divine nature? The answer is no. The Fourth General Council of Chalcedon in 451 declared de fide that “in the hypostatic union each of the two natures of Christ continues unimpaired, untransformed and unmixed with the other.” (Ott, p. 147).

    The answer to your question, Shane, is that your premises are correct, but you intuitively imagine that the Divine Nature must necessarily have changed in assuming the Human Nature. But the faith definitely denies this by asserting that Christ retains both natures, both retaining perfect integrity while being joined in one Divine Person, the human nature in complete subservience to the Divine nature.

    This formula guarantees that the Divine LOGOS became man without ceasing to be God.

    I think my post is a little long for its length, but I hope it shines a few rays of light.

    Bless you Stacy! Your statements throughout this thread are wonderful.

    I’m learning a lot reading all of the comments here, so please, please keep them coming.

  • FatherOP

    Stacy,

    First of all, I want to clarify that the long post I made above was typed *before* I saw your response to Mary Ann’s. So nothing I wrote in that last one was made with reference to your follow-up, but only to the original article.

    I think the best way to look at the language issue here is it is something really rather specific to ENGLISH that is causing the confusion.

    In Latin, you have a word for man (that is, when the author really wants to emphasize that he is talking about the male of the human species), which is “vir.” You have a word for woman (that is, a female of the human species), which is “mulier.” And you have a word that is more generic, when you mean a member of the human species (whether male or female), which is “homo.” And that more general term bears no resemblance whatsoever to the metaphysical/theological term for “being,” which is “esse.” So in Latin, or quite frankly in any language where there is a specific word in the vocabulary that means “human being, whether male or female,” there is no possibility of there being this confusion.

    But English, despite having a rather large vocabulary as compared to most other languages, lacks a specific (lone) word to indicate “member of the human race, whether male or female.” For the longest time, in English if you wanted to convey “member of the human race, whether male or female” you would simply use “man” and hope that the context of the sentence makes it clear whether you intend to mean only those of the male sex, or all human beings collectively.

    So then the feminist movement comes along (with all of its aspects, both good and evil) and there is a push to stop using the word “man” when one is intending to convey the more general meaning of “member of the human species, whether male or female.” At face value (abstracting from all the ‘agenda’ that so often lies behind it), that is a fine idea from a purely linguistic viewpoint; indeed doing so could potentially add some clarity to certain theological conversations since you eliminate the possibility of causing confusion about whether you mean “male-man” or “generic-male-or-female-man.” The problem, however, arises when “human being” gets chosen as the replacement phrase. Because of the fact that in English, “being” is the word used to translate the Latin “esse.”

    So in making this switch you solve one language problem (the problem of whether “man” is being intended to mean only male, or generic male or female) but you create a problem that is far, far worse (Christologically speaking) by linking (in English) the metaphysical term for being, esse, to this attempt to speak generically about “members of the human species whether male or female.”

    To summarize my huge wall of text (I apologize!) the issue boils down to the fact that in English, “human being” as a phrase seems to be making a claim about *being* (esse). And that is why calling Christ a “human being” is not something you want to do, because it implies that His *being* is human, when in fact His being is not human at all, His being is 100% divine, it is simply a Divine being (a Divine “esse”) that, post-Incarnation, is united to a 100% human nature, resulting in a God-man who is both fully God and fully man. Or, you can equally say, both fully God and fully human. That phrase is perfectly fine. CHRIST is, indeed, fully God and fully human. But Christ’s *being* is fully God (period, end of sentence); Christ’s *being* is not human at all.

    NOW…last bit (I promise!)…in light of this, you could potentially change the wording of #5 to simply say “Christ was human,” i.e. drop the word “being” out of it entirely. I still don’t like that as much as the much more elegant “Christ was man” (or even better, “is man,” since using the past tense could seem to indicate that He was man at some point in the past, but no longer is…), but at least by dropping the word “being” out of the equation you can eliminate the danger of any metaphysical/theological confusion. SO…

    “Christ was man.” Fine.
    “Christ was human.” Fine.
    “Christ was a human being.” Not fine.

    Make sense? I hope that helps. :)

  • http://www.explainingchristianity.com Shane Kapler

    Jeff, thank you for what you have written; it is truly excellent. Your bringing in creation and the Church address other aspects of my thought that I had left unsaid. My difficulty was not feeling that the hypostatic union caused a change to the Divine nature; I am familiar with the Councils and their teaching that the natures are unconfused. Rather, you started to put your finger on my difficulty when you wrote, “To sum up point one, human nature exists for eternity as an idea in the mind of God, according to St. Thomas, so in this sense, yes it’s true that Christ is united with human nature, and indeed designed the universe for us and for our salvation.”

    The hypostatic union “begins” in time, but would have always been present to the Son in His Divinity. When we look at the Incarnation from the vantage point of time we can point to a certain nanosecond in history when God took flesh; but looking at it from the vantage point of eternity, the Son would seem to have always been joined to His creation. I will go back and read Stacy’s entries on quiddities; thank you for the suggestion!

  • LJP

    Wow, amazing stuff!

    FatherOP, thanks so much for the language lesson! That answers questions I didn’t even know I had! Excellent!

  • Doug

    Stacy Trasancos writes: “When speaking of the Incarnation theologians use the term “hypostatic union” to refer to the union of a human nature and the Divine Nature in the hypostasis, or personality, of the Second Person of the Blessed Trinity, the Son of God.”
    Emphasis added, to phrases that ‘God studiers’ use but the Bible- aka God’s word- does not.
    “Son of God” is both necessary and sufficient to describe Jesus, the Messiah.
    Peter knew this, as seen at John 6:69 and Mt 16:16.

  • SteveP

    Jeff McLeod, Father Erlenbush, and FatherOP: thank you for the expositions. Individually and collectively they are quite helpful.

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